LOL. I did answer your silly question.
No you didn't.
What is so hard about explicitly stating that if Tippit's blood were found on Oswald's shoes or pants that means he is the murderer
I have already done that. You are just too dumb to understand it.
Now run to the National Archives and have Oswald's trousers and shoes tested for Tippit's blood or dna. If the results come back positive, I'll be the first to accept that Oswald killed Tippit.
But, somehow, I doubt you will do so.... afraid of what you will find!
"If dna was found in the jacket and it doesn't belong to Oswald, would you accept that CE 162 was not Oswald's jacket or at least wasn't worn by him?"
My answer is that I would expect DNA of other individuals to be on the jacket. It may have been owned and worn by someone prior to Oswald and has been handled by numerous individuals over the decades since its discovery. That is a very stupid question that you posed. If you are asking if the jacket is tested and Oswald's DNA is not discovered on it after nearly 6 decades, does that mean it didn't belong to him, then the answer is that it doesn't rule out Oswald's ownership of the jacket. The absence of DNA is not the same as the presence of DNA. Can you understand that simple point? The presence of DNA would conclusively link Oswald to the jacket (unless some contrarian made a stupid, baseless claim like it was planted or the authorities should have found "more" DNA as with the fingerprint evidence). The absence of DNA simply means none was found. It does not exclude Oswald as having worn the jacket. This would be obvious to most.