Unreal. Take it up with Jon. He made the claim that there was a cover up of "a potential communist conspiracy" to "avoid a war." Again, "a potential communist conspiracy" covered up to "AVOID A WAR." That is his premise not mine. I simply responded to his point. Obviously, I don't believe there was a coverup of a Communist conspiracy to avoid a war because there was no such conspiracy. You are bizarrely asking me to prove the intent of a conspiracy that I do not believe happened! As usual, you have interjected a lot of nonsense to take this discussion down the rabbit hole.
"No one could’ve predicted in advance of JFK’s murder that Lyndon Johnson, a southerner and rabid anti-communist, would respond to evidence of a potential communist conspiracy by covering it up in order to avoid a war."
You are bizarrely asking me to prove the intent of a conspiracy that I do not believe happened! No, wrong again. I never asked you to prove anything of the kind.
When you claimed
"there was undoubtedly a very real concern that WWIII could be started on a false premise that Cuba or Russia was behind the assassination" I merely asked you how they knew that the premise was false.
And when you subsequently stated;
"So the fantasy conspirators assassinated the US president, framed Oswald, and covered up the identity of the real assassins as a pretext to start a war with Cuba or Russia but then threw in the towel within 24 hours because LBJ was not on board?" I asked you where you got the idea from that the intention of the assassination was a pretext to start a war?
You have failed to answer both questions.
Take it up with Jon. He made the claim that there was a cover up of "a potential communist conspiracy" to "avoid a war."Which is exactly what you said. You only added that it was a false premise, without ever being able to explain how they could have known within 48 hours that such a premise was indeed false.
Now, here's the thing; in order for them to conclude (correctly or not) that the premise was false they must have considered the possibility that the intention of the assassination was in fact a pretext to start a war. The problem with that is of course that Hoover concluded on the 24th that Oswald had been a lone gunman. So, how can you consider the act of a lone gunman was intended to start a war?
You either conclude that there was a lone gunman, in which case there is no fear for a possible war or you believe a possible conspiracy was in play with the intention to start a war, you now want to avoid.
The blocking of any kind of serious investigation into a conspiracy from the beginning, to avoid a possible war, clearly suggests that the possibility of such a conspiracy to start a war was most certainly not ruled out, which in turn means that they must have understood from day one that Oswald was not a lone gunman. Or is that too much logic for you?