What about that axiom that the simple solution is probably the correct one.? So isn’t the proposition that Oswald was double timing a simple way to make the timeline work out so that Markams 1:06-7 sighting and Bowleys 1:10 watch and Calloway’s estimate match up fairly well with the 1:15 DOA by the emergency doctor?
And double timing is certainly a plausible action that an anxious, upset , worried Oswald would do if his intention was to leave TSBD and get back to his boarding house asap to get a revolver?
It’s really an argument about why Oswald was so upset anxious paranoid etc, that he felt compelled to return to his boarding house as his 1st priority rather than to seek out his wife and children and assure their safety.
LN : this is what a crazy person who just shot the President would do so it’s not surprising that he shot Tippit on his way to see a movie.
CT :Oswald’s paranoia was for other reason. It could be from indirect involvement in some way or suspicion about something or someone whom Oswald knew like Jack Ruby. So Oswald’s decision to prioritize boarding house was to get the revolver and then where Oswald exactly was headed may not have originally been the theater.
Conclusion: Double timing is the simple way to make the timeline work allowing Oswald to have shot Tippit at 1:08. Paranoia is a good reason Oswald was double timing. Prioritizing boarding house over family therefore was a self preservation act to get a revolver to deal with the most immediate threat perceived by a paranoid Oswald which was that he might himself be the next victim due to his association with characters like Jack Ruby or that the FBI or CIA had set him up. The shooting of Tippit therefore does not de facto mean that Oswald was the JFK assassin.