So by not killing someone...Oswald proved he was a homicidal maniac.
LOL. That is a bizarre and embarrassing interpretation of Oswald's attempt to murder someone with a rifle. You are really using the fact that he missed by chance when firing a rifle shot to kill someone as proof that he had no prior homicidal intent? That is Caprio-esque. It was you who suggested that unless an individual has some prior history of murderous violence, then they will not commit such a crime. That is not only an erroneous premise but you have actually reversed who had the more questionable background when comparing Whitman and Oswald. Oswald's prior history raised many more red flags than Charles Whitman. Oswald associated himself with a fringe political element, defected to the USSR, suggested to his pregnant wife that they hijack an airplane, was a person of interest to the FBI due to his bizarre behavior, tried to defect to Cuba, and had actually attempted to murder someone. The only reason Oswald had not actually "killed someone" prior to the assassination was a matter of chance rather than intent. His bullet deflected off a window frame. By comparison to nutty Oswald's life that included attempted murder, Whitman was a choir boy prior to going on his rampage.
